Look again at my earlier response, particularly this part: "Japan no longer presented a threat to America, so “protracted negotiations” were not something to be compared to, say, Chamberlain’s “appeasement”."

I included that sentence specifically because I knew someone would point out his opinion about negotiations (e.g. Chamberlain's appeasement policy) with the Axis.

Furthermore, was Churchill aware that before the bombs were dropped, that Japan had been trying to negotiate a surrender through Moscow? Was he aware that Japan no longer posed a threat to the Allied powers? Or was he too busy trying to put England (and what remained of western Europe) back together again? I'd say the status of America's war against Japan was fairly low on his list of priorities at the time.

Furthermore, did he really feel the use of the Bombs was necessary in order to ensure victory, or did he say that in order to provide political cover for their use? Remember that Churchill was one of the great masters of oratory and rhetoric in recorded history. If he said something, that doesn't automatically mean it was what he felt was right or wrong, but that it was often what he considered necessary to be said at the time.